- teesses3 weeks ago
|AussieInBg3 weeks ago|
The short answer - in most cases when we use the infinitive of the verb and do not use a modal or auxiliary verb.
AussieInBg3 weeks agoDe rien! teesses3 weeks agoMerci beaucoup pour ta réponse . Bonne journée.Thierry
|debbie_goo4 days ago|
When do we put in front of a verb?
teesses6 days agothank you Sucher . It’s okay It helps me a lot .
Have a good day
AussieInBg6 days agoThese are examples of using the infinitive of the verb without a modal verb like ”might”, ”should”, ”could” and so on.
Quite a few verbs use the infinitive without ”to”, such as the examples I’d given in my answer and other patterns like ”to see sb do sth”, ”to watch sb do sth” and so on.
There are even examples which vary depending on usage, e.g.
”to help sb to do sth” - generally used formally and more common in British English
”to help sb do sth” - less formally used and more common in American English.
”get to” is ”to” after the verb and not before the verb. The question was about ”to” in front of the verb (i.e. before the verb).
”I get to home at five o’clock.” is completely wrong here. The correct form is ”I get home at five o’clock.”.